Should shutterstock, alamy, getty and similar sources be considered generally unreliable for sourcing information in text? (t · c) buidhe09:57, 14 August 2020 (UTC)
I think questions of this nature should be decided on a case-by-case basis. This certainly seems to me to be a sculpted bust of John Major, as does this. I don't think we need a blanket rule on this. Bus stop (talk) 18:18, 16 August 2020 (UTC)
Where captions are included (as in these examples), I think the stock image could be used if the stock company demonstrates editorial control and fact checking. Alamy says it does notedit contributors' photos and appears to rely on contributors to provide accurate captions, indicating there is no additional editorial scrutiny. I would treat Alamy as user-generated, although individual contributors may be reliable (the onus should be wholly on editors wanting to add such refs to demonstrate they should be white-listed). Shutterstock says they review "titles and keywords...for accuracy and relevance...", so they might be reliable. I am not convinced that such photos could be used to support notability or DUEness of a statement, however. JoelleJay (talk) 20:48, 16 August 2020 (UTC)
Captions are generally reliable for identifying the subject of an image, since we routinely allow Wikimedians to exercise WP:OR when identifying their own images. However, I wouldn't use them for sourced prose. -- King of ♥ ♦ ♣ ♠17:18, 19 August 2020 (UTC)
Can the Qur'an be used as a reliable source on what it teaches?
I'm posting this question here as WP:RSPSCRIPTURE references discussions on this page. My question is whether the Qur'an can be paraphrased without any reliable secondary sources. The following example is being discussed at Talk:Rape_in_Islamic_law#More_original_research. Qur'an 2:223 says (Yusuf Ali's translation):
I think a reliable secondary source is needed for such paraphrasing, especially the phrase[Quran 2:223] defines the man's wives as his own personal "tilth". Grufo disagrees that a reliable, secondary source is required and believes the Qur'an is a sufficient source for this statement.
Grufo has argued that WP:RSPSCRIPTURE does not always require reliable secondary sources for summarizing scriptures. Grufo also seems to believe that WP:RSPSCRIPTURE only forbids "scriptural analysis" of the Qur'an but allows wikipedians to do "textual analysis" of the Qur'an without a reliable, secondary source. I strongly believe that any analysis of the Qur'an requires a reliable source and the Qur'an can't be considered a reliable source by itself.
Holy texts and their translations are considered primary sources. Scholarly secondary (and sometimes tertiary sources like non-user-generated encyclopedias) should be cited to support text on any interpretation. —PaleoNeonate – 18:56, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
The attempt to distinguish "scriptural analysis" as a different concept from "textual analysis" doesn't hold water. We should not be using religious scripture as anything other than a primary source to provide quotes to better contextualize the content highlighted by secondary sources. signed, Rosguilltalk19:13, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
WP:RSPSCRIPTURE states “Content that interprets or summarizes scriptural passages or narratives should generally be cited to appropriate scholarly sources (for example, in the academic field of religious studies) and attributed when appropriate” (emphasis mine). So it is clear that some discretion is left to the editor of the page to judge whether a POV has been added (in which case secondary sources are needed) or not. Furthermore Rape in Islamic law § Marital rape contains both the indirect quotation and the direct quotation right below. --Grufo (talk) 20:16, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
@Rosguill:“We should not be using religious scripture as anything other than a primary source to provide quotes to better contextualize the content highlighted by secondary sources”: I believe that is exactly what the current version of the page does. --Grufo (talk) 20:29, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
Grufo, I'm stating my own opinion on this issue, not citing RSPSCRIPTURE, which is merely a record of prior consensus. In the most recent relevant discussion, if I recall correctly, the two main camps were editors who felt that scripture could be used as a direct source for uncontroversial summaries of narrative, with the key example at issue being the narrative summary at Exodus. I and other editors in the second camp argued that this opened the door for wikilawyering over interpretations (and that truly uncontroversial parts of scripture are few and far between, even when limiting oneself to pure narrative); this discussion vindicates that position IMO.
But, to address your wikilawyering head on: using the Quran directly here is not appropriate. Find a secondary source that paraphrases the text this way and cite that if you can. In my opinion, scripture should be cited as a supplement if and only if a reliable secondary source explicitly cites a passage. While a source in the article does cite Quran 2:223 on this issue, it does not provide the paraphrase that Grufo is advocating for. Including a Quran quote is appropriate; including parentheticals that attempt to interpret what the Quran is referring to is not, at least in the absence of a source that connects the same dots. signed, Rosguilltalk20:45, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
“In my opinion, scripture should be cited as a supplement if and only if a reliable secondary source explicitly cites a passage.”: Rosguill, I would like that we focus on the current paragraph Rape in Islamic law § Marital rape (which is the version after my edit). Dar al-Ifta al-Misriyyah (secondary source) uses Quran 2:223 in support of an argument. I then added the actual Quranic passage (2:223) and wrote a short introduction to it. What exactly do you think is not OK with what I have done? --Grufo (talk) 21:00, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
Grufo there is big difference in how Dar al-Ifta introduces that verse and how you introduce that verse. Dar al-Ifta al-Misriyyah says"The Islamic Shari’ah advised that the sexual intercourse between man and wife should be conducted with intimacy and love and made such amicable conduct as a sign of piety. [Qur'an 2:223]". That's very different from you addingQuran 2:223, which although defines the man's wives as his own personal "tilth".VRtalk21:10, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
I think that everything after "intimacy and love" is unnecessary and borderng on OR. A better revision would read...intimacy and love, and cites Quran 2:223 to support this position. Depending on questions of how much weight al-Misriyyah's perspective deserves relative to the rest of the section (I have no opinion on this), it may be appropriate to cite the actual Quran verse, but the introduction ofwhich although defines the man's wives as his own personal "tilth" and invites him to approach them "when or how [he] will", prescribes to "do some good act for [his and his wives'] souls beforehand" suggests a framing through the use of "although" that is not directly attested in the secondary source (in addition to being ungrammatical and largely redundant with the quote itself). signed, Rosguilltalk21:19, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
Rosguill Can we adjust the language of WP:RSPSCRIPTURE to prevent future wikilawyering? I propose removing the "generally" inContent that interprets or summarizes scriptural passages or narratives should generally be cited to appropriate scholarly sources...VRtalk21:10, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
On any topic that is contentious, a secondary source is absolutely necessary. Religious texts require both translation and interpretation, not just as to their content, but as to which sections are significant. Making arguments based on the primary source text is entirely inappropriate. Vanamonde (Talk)20:21, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
Dar al-Ifta al-Misriyyah (secondary source) uses Quran 2:223 in support of an argument (and this has been added to the page by Vice regent), I only added the actual Quranic passage to the page, plus a short introduction to it. --Grufo (talk) 20:29, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
No you didn't. Look as this diff:[20] Search for the sentence that follows the words "which although defines". Leaving aside the question of whether the edit was appropriate, you clearly added a source that interprets the Qur'an, not just "the actual Quranic passage to the page, plus a short introduction to it". --Guy Macon (talk) 20:50, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
@Guy Macon: The secondary source (Dar al-Ifta al-Misriyyah) was added by Vice regent before the diff you mention, and in Vice regent's addition there was already Quran 2:223 used in support by Dar al-Ifta al-Misriyyah. I added only Quran 2:223 (the actual Quranic text) and an introduction to it. --Grufo (talk) 21:00, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
Wrong. Just click on the diff[[21]] and search for "which although defines". If somebody else had added it that phrase would be found on the before and after sides. It isn't. It is only on the after side. therefor you added it. Please stop saying things that are not true. Did you think nobody would check? --Guy Macon (talk) 21:25, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
Vice regent, could you please confirm to Guy Macon that you have added to the page the text “Islamic law advises that the sexual intercourse between man and wife should be conducted with intimacy and love; this is supported by Quran 2:223” and that before your addition there had never been a mention to Quran 2:223 in the page? This is just for the sake of clarity and for any question I have pasted our two different versions below. --Grufo (talk) 21:35, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
Guy Macon, you have edited your comment, so my previous comment was an answer to the previous version of what you wrote. The answer to your new version of the comment instead is yes, starting from “which although defines” is all my addition. --Grufo (talk) 21:42, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
Grufo The secondary source, Dar al-Ifta al-Misriyyah says"The Islamic Shari’ah advised that the sexual intercourse between man and wife should be conducted with intimacy and love and made such amicable conduct as a sign of piety. [Qur'an 2:223]". That's very different from you addingQuran 2:223, which although defines the man's wives as his own personal "tilth".VRtalk21:08, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
I advise waiting a while to see if any of the experienced editors at RSN respond to Grufo instead of instantly responding. If an hour goes by and nobody has responded, then post your response. Give the system time to work. --Guy Macon (talk) 21:23, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
Vanamonde93 is correct. Any claims about scriptures -- even if they seem obvious to the editor -- should be supported by scholarly secondary sources. Treat WP:RSPSCRIPTURE as if it was scripture. (that last bit was a joke, but please interpret RSPSCRIPTURE strictly; a lot of thought went into it). --Guy Macon (talk) 20:51, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
So, endlessly fight over its interpretation while treating every single word choice as if it's filled with infinite significance and portent?signed, Rosguilltalk21:49, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
To all: please stop pinging me. I am watching this thread and being notified again and again to look at something I am going to look at anyway is annoying. --Guy Macon (talk) 21:23, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
I'd go even a step further that quoting any of these holy books, which have gone through how many telephone games in terms of translations (albeit with care by theologians), that we should not be quoting the books directly but always using quotes as presented by the secondary sources so that we are relying on their selected translation and not the one we feel is correct in context. --Masem (t) 21:55, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
Often secondary sources do not give directly their holy quotation, they just tell you the chapter and the verse where to look. --Grufo (talk) 22:04, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
According to this rule there would be basically no direct quotations from the scriptures on Wikipedia. And without primary sources in front for judging and balancing the secondary sources, the choice on what secondary sources to include will become even harder than it already is, and and we will have to make tertiary sources mandatory (since we will have no other means to discern). --Grufo (talk) 00:22, 13 August 2020 (UTC)
Per PaleoNeonate, Rosguill and Vanamonde. Scripture is often hundreds - if not thousands - of years old, with language, cultural and geographic contexts far removed from ours. We cannot pretend to read it in an encyclopaedically-meaningful way without interpretation. François Robere (talk) 12:28, 14 August 2020 (UTC)
P.S. I made a mistake by using “he” to refer to the Dar al-Ifta al-Misriyyah instead of using “it”, but that has nothing to do with this discussion. --Grufo (talk) 21:11, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
References
The above does not, as you previously claimed, "just add the actual Quranic passage to the page, plus a short introduction to it". BTW, why did you cite the same source four times and two different ways? --Guy Macon (talk) 21:36, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
The paragraph
"which although defines the man's wives as his own personal "tilth" and invites him to approach them "when or how [he] will", prescribes to "do some good act for [his and his wives'] souls beforehand"
is an interpretation of the passage from the Quran
"Your wives are as a tilth unto you; so approach your tilth when or how ye will; but do some good act for your souls beforehand; and fear Allah. And know that ye are to meet Him (in the Hereafter), and give (these) good tidings to those who believe."
"As a tilth" does not equal "his own personal tilth". "So approach your tilth" does not equal "Invites him to approach them". "Your souls" does not equal "For [his and his wives'] souls". These may seem like reasonable interpretations to you, but everybody thinks that their interpretation of scripture is the only reasonable one. Please stick to the interpretations found in scholarly secondary sources rather than rolling your own. --Guy Macon (talk) 21:47, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
I understand your point of view, although I believe we are within the discretion allowed by WP:RSPSCRIPTURE (see above). But, anyway, since I think I am minority at this point, I believe that I will keep only the verbatim Quranic quotation and remove the introduction to it. This answer also to Rosguill. --Grufo (talk) 21:59, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
Can the Qur'an be used as a reliable source on what it teaches? A good commentary is certainly needed, because many Qoranic verses have been abrogated (superseded) by others. Also, many verses have been modified or further explained by hadith, and you need to see the whole picture befrore you can interpret individual verses. Law students know that all law codes (especially civil law) possess voluminous commentaries, and it is impossible to learn or understand the law without them. The same holds true for religious codes, whether Bible or Qoran (actually Islamic law, only partly based on the Qoran). AFAIk there is no critical edition of the Quran comparable to critical editions of the Bible (but see Corpus Coranicum). Biblical scholarship is much older and wider disseminated than Islamic studies.
The issue here is not about individual verses, but the topic of women in Islam. I would recommend reading the article al-mar'a in the EI2 (Vol. 6), which answers many of the questions and uncertainties winding through this thread. --83.137.6.248 (talk) 22:16, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
Hadiths and Quranic self-abrogations are all things that concern only Islam and say nothing about the Quran itself. As I already stated elsewhere, the Quran can also be reliably commented from a completely different perspective even by an atheist philologist (but of course an academic, not a Wikipedia editor) – exactly like it has happened with the Bible and other holy texts. --Grufo (talk) 22:23, 12 August 2020 (UTC)
Given how much controversy and disagreement there is over religious texts, I would say that anything but the most uncontroversial and obvious of statements needs to be sourced to a secondary source; otherwise we're almost always going to be presenting interpretation or analysis. An added issue is that these are not in English, which means that translation is always required. And on top of that, I would be extremely skeptical about pulling out any text that isn't particularly well-known, especially if it's done in a way that makes it seem like it's making a particular point or presenting the faith in a particular way - those risk delving into WP:SYNTH / WP:OR. An added reason to emphasize this requirement is that many editors are going to feel that the personal reading of a religious text that they follow is "obvious" (it is a tenet of faith among some religious groups that their interpretations are axiomatically not interpretations but the only possible literal meaning of the text, even though from our perspective their beliefs obviously involve interpretation and numerous other people read it differently.) Especially in this context, where the editor is plainly connecting that line to Islamic laws about rape - there's absolutely no way that can be read as anything but inappropriate interpretation and analysis of a WP:PRIMARY source. A secondary source is required for that sort of implication to avoid WP:OR / WP:SYNTH. --Aquillion (talk) 04:51, 13 August 2020 (UTC)
There are plenty of scholarly sources which discuss marital rape in Islam: Apparently it is allowed: (t · c) buidhe05:58, 13 August 2020 (UTC)
Another source also states that most interpretations of Islam have no conception of marital rape because a wife's duty is to obey her husband (t · c) buidhe06:09, 13 August 2020 (UTC)
References
There are a fair number of recent statements and fatwas by religious authorities, covered by reliable news reports, that condemn violence against women in general including within marriage [22],[23], [24], [25]. I'd be a bit hard pressed to find sources that explicitly condemn r.a.p.e, just like I'd be to find those that explicitly condemn murder and I'm sure I can find Islamists who disagree as well. (The edit filter is going beserk) 39.37.159.63 (talk) 07:58, 13 August 2020 (UTC)
Condemning violence against women isn't incompatible with not accepting the idea of marital rape, if your belief is that women are obligated to provide the husband with sex. I think you are also engaging in WP:OR. (t · c) buidhe21:12, 13 August 2020 (UTC)
It's important to actually read the sources in detail rather than just skim them for pull-quotes (part of the reason why reputable secondary sources are needed for this sort of thing is because they tend to provide full context.) Both the sources you quoted specifically state that the interpretations they cite are disputed and not universal. From Hajjar:However, such interpretations are neither universal across Muslim societies nor universally accepted even within societies where intrafamily violence is sanctioned on the basis of shari'a. I elaborate on these differences with examples from specific countries in the final section of this article. Here, I would stress the point that interpretations of religion are social and have a history. In this regard, the problem of domestic violence in Muslim societies and struggles against it are comparable to those in other societies, because they raise common questions about the relationship among religion and culture, the state, and women's rights. Moreover, in the contemporary era, the importance of comparative analysis is boosted by the ways that local contestations over women's rights are shaped and affected by the impact of global legal initiatives under the rubric of human rights to regulate and restrict violence. Note specifically that she says it's comparable to other societies, ie. most other major faiths have comparable religious authorities who likewise argue against the concept of martial rape. Since that source specifically says this issue in Islam is "comparable to other societies", it would be misusing the source to use it without that context in a way that presents this as a problem unique or specific to Islam, and outright misrepresenting it to present it as saying that that position is universal within Islam (I did not, at a glance, see where Hajjar says that "most" Islamic authorities allow martial rape - could you cite the specific quote? She seems to me to be saying the opposite, since she emphasizes that the interpretation she describes is contested.) Similarly, Tønnessen says thatThere are conflicting claims regarding women’s legal rights under Islam on the key issues of consent and obedience. Women activists advocate that marital rape should be criminalized in the Criminal Act and that the requirements for female obedience and male guardianship in the family law should be abolished. --Aquillion (talk) 04:08, 14 August 2020 (UTC)
OK, I did not read both sources in depth, I have a life outside of WP. One of the footnotes in Tønnessen states, "According to Lisa Hajjar (2004, p. 11), marital rape is “uncriminalizable” under dominant interpretations of Islamic law." And in Hajjar, p. 11 states, "Marital rape is another form of domestic violence for which justifica- tion on the basis of shari’a can be found. Although rape is a punishable crime in every Muslim society, nowhere is the criminal sanction extended to rape within marriage, because sexual access is deemed elemental to the marriage contract. Under shari’a, there is no harm-and thus no crime-in acts of sex between people who are married. Thus, marital rape is literally “uncriminalizable” under dominant interpretations of shari’a. For example, Sura 2, Verse 223, provides a Qur’anic basis for men’s unabridged sexual access to their wives. This verse stipulates that “your wives are ploughing fields for you; go to your field when and as you like.” Although other Qur’anic verses and hadith instruct men not to force themselves sexually upon their wives, this tends to be undermined by the principle of female obedience (see El Alami 1992; El Alami and Hinchcliffe 1996). Indeed, a wife’s refusal to have sex with her husband can be construed as “disobedi- ence,” thereby triggering legalistic justification for beating." That does not exclude alternative interpretations, which are stated to be minority interpretations by Hajjar. (t · c) buidhe06:08, 14 August 2020 (UTC)
The first and fourth news reports above do seem to clearly condemn marital r.a.p.e [26][27] (the other two are about harassment) and the claim that they somehow sidestep the issue seems to be OR. We have some scholarly sources like Brown who make the same point as well.
Another problem I have with some of the sources is that some of the Feminist sources cited, like Ayesha Chaudhry, are Muslim themselves. I highly doubt that they would support blanket statements like "marital r.a.p.e is allowed in Islam", rather than a much more qualified point that, just like some interpretations of other religions, some traditional interpretations of Islam/Islamic sources/Sharia, which they regard as patriarchal and sexist, and which they (as Muslim scholars) oppose, allow for or ignore the existence of marital r.a.p.e, when defined under the terms of consent rather than harm. It's a fair bit lengthier but the nuance is kinda important here in capturing what the sources are saying. 39.37.174.170 (talk) 09:03, 14 August 2020 (UTC)
Addendum: Grufo did something similar over at Islam and Blasphemy changing:
to:
Grufo's personal additions are found nowhere in any source and he admits as much, but he still maintains that his additions, which actually seem to contradict the citation, ought to be included and uses the same arguments he uses above. This OR should be removed or tagged too. 39.37.159.63 (talk) 12:59, 13 August 2020 (UTC)
Religious texts are notoriously open to interpretations and should never be presented without a secondary source explaining them. Of course it is fine to say when writing about religious people how they interpret scripture without mentioning other interpretations. We might say for example that a Christian sect preaches corporal punishment because Solomon said. TFD (talk) 03:18, 14 August 2020 (UTC)
If the issue here is edits like this one, then that's pretty cut and dry. I'll admit that a newspaper is not necessarily the best source for theological claims, given the libraries that have been written on the subject, but it is a secondary source. We do not replace secondary sources with personal exegesis using primary religious texts.
Personally I would go a step further and say that we shouldn't generally be using primary religious texts even for direct quotes, where the selection and presentation of those quotes is not based on use in secondary sources. The sheer volume of primary religious texts, along with their many translations, is sufficient that merely the selection and presentation of even direct quotes can become an avenue for original research. GMGtalk11:14, 19 August 2020 (UTC)
And what is your opinion of articles such as Psalm 1 which include the primary text of the Biblical passage, along with a centuries-old translation? Dimadick (talk) 17:42, 19 August 2020 (UTC)