Derivation
Consider the average energy of a state with a node at x = 0; i.e., ψ(0) = 0. The average energy in this state would be

where V(x) is the potential.
With integration by parts:
![{\displaystyle \int _{a}^{b}\psi ^{*}{\frac {d^{2}\psi }{dx^{2}}}dx=\left[\psi ^{*}{\frac {d\psi }{dx}}\right]_{a}^{b}-\int _{a}^{b}{\frac {d\psi ^{*}}{dx}}{\frac {d\psi }{dx}}dx=\left[\psi ^{*}{\frac {d\psi }{dx}}\right]_{a}^{b}-\int _{a}^{b}\left|{\frac {d\psi }{dx}}\right|^{2}dx}](https://wikimedia.org/api/rest_v1/media/math/render/svg/dd87377035bb9dcd751205d79e01ea976012d862)
Hence in case that
is equal to zero, one gets:

Now, consider a small interval around
; i.e.,
. Take a new (deformed) wave function ψ'(x) to be defined as
, for
; and
, for
; and constant for
. If
is small enough, this is always possible to do, so that ψ'(x) is continuous.
Assuming
around
, one may write
where
is the norm.
Note that the kinetic-energy densities hold
everywhere because of the normalization. More significantly, the average kinetic energy is lowered by
by the deformation to ψ'.
Now, consider the potential energy. For definiteness, let us choose
. Then it is clear that, outside the interval
, the potential energy density is smaller for the ψ' because
there.
On the other hand, in the interval
we have
which holds to order
.
However, the contribution to the potential energy from this region for the state ψ with a node is
lower, but still of the same lower order
as for the deformed state ψ', and subdominant to the lowering of the average kinetic energy.
Therefore, the potential energy is unchanged up to order
, if we deform the state
with a node into a state ψ' without a node, and the change can be ignored.
We can therefore remove all nodes and reduce the energy by
, which implies that
cannot be the ground state. Thus the ground-state wave function cannot have a node. This completes the proof. (The average energy may then be further lowered by eliminating undulations, to the variational absolute minimum.)
Implication
As the ground state has no nodes it is spatially non-degenerate, i.e. there are no two stationary quantum states with the energy eigenvalue of the ground state (let's name it
) and the same spin state and therefore would only differ in their position-space wave functions.
The reasoning goes by contradiction: For if the ground state would be degenerate then there would be two orthonormal stationary states
and
— later on represented by their complex-valued position-space wave functions
and
— and any superposition :=c_{1}\left|\psi _{1}\right\rangle +c_{2}\left|\psi _{2}\right\rangle }
with the complex numbers
fulfilling the condition
would also be a be such a state, i.e. would have the same energy-eigenvalue
and the same spin-state.
Now let
be some random point (where both wave functions are defined) and set:
and
with
(according to the premise no nodes).
Therefore, the position-space wave function of
is

Hence
for all
.
But
i.e.,
is a node of the ground state wave function and that is in contradiction to the premise that this wave function cannot have a node.
Note that the ground state could be degenerate because of different spin states like
and
while having the same position-space wave function: Any superposition of these states would create a mixed spin state but leave the spatial part (as a common factor of both) unaltered.